An Ignorant Sack of Shit

Bill Maher goes full retard, again, and how the farce of "Judeo-Christian" ever managed to gain mainstream traction.

I watched the Bill Maher segment this morning, and several times I just had to take a breath because he’s such an ignorant sack of shit.

— Norman Finklestein

Inversion of Truth

A pot-head atheist from the hollyweird bubble of idiocy, degeneracy, propaganda, and filth—whose career has been built on mocking religion as fairy tales for the dumb masses—recently decided to quote the Bible to defend the supposed “right of return” of Rothschild-State subjects (modern European jews) to the land of Judah the twelve tribes of Israel from around 1200 BC.

“Israel is the Jews’ homeland, and Jews have always lived there. It’s literally in the bible, you can look it up,” said Bill Maher in his ending monologue two Fridays ago. Suddenly, the bible is no longer farcical and fake when it suits Maher and the political Zionist movement of the Talmudic world order he has always worked for. There are many historical inaccuracies with this narrative, created by Talmudites, of which we only need a few to expose this rewritten religious history for the charade that it is.

First off, the word “Jew” is used interchangeably today with no historical grounding, all for emotional manipulation. It didn’t exist until about 1,500 years after Judah, as Judeans. Though in the English language, it didn’t appear until Wycliffe’s Bible (~1380 AD) as Iewes, which didn’t become Jews until the seventeenth century, and wasn’t even commonly used until the nineteenth century. Most biblical translations that refer to “Jews” name descendants of Judah in Roman-era Judea.

So, who were the biblical Jews? They certainly weren’t all Israelites, or even just a fraction. The tribes of Israel were a loose alliance of twelve clans (sons of Jacob), and only one of them—Judah, along with part of Benjamin’s clan—survived the Assyrian conquest of 722 BC and later the Babylonian exile of 586 BC.

In mathematical terms, only one-twelfth of the Israelites were of the Judah clan. The term Yehudi, meaning Judahite, referred only to people from the small southern Kingdom of Judah, which broke away from Israel in the 10th century BC—probably for no reason at all other than the grotesque levels of Anti-Semitism displayed by the ten lost tribes.

Just as the term Israel has nothing to do with Israelites, the term Jews today mostly refers to talmudic jews, who follow a set of “oral traditions” written two to five centuries AFTER Christ, and have little to do with Hebrews or Israelites or even most Semites today—descendants of Shem.

To put all this in an absurd framing of an LSAT or IQ logic question, it would look something like this:

If all Hebrews are descendants of Eber, and some Israelites are Hebrews, but not all Hebrews are Israelites, and only some Judahites are Israelites, but most Israelites are not Judahites, and the term “Jew” applies mainly to post-exilic 4th-century Judea rather than to Israelites or Hebrews in general, then which of the following statements must be true?

A. All Torah Jews are Israelites, but not all Israelites are Talmudic Jews.
B. Some Hebrews are Judahites, but most Talmudic Jews are neither Israelites nor Hebrews nor Semites.
C. All Israelites are Jews, because Israel is in the word “Israelite.”
D. The word “Jew” has the same relation to “Hebrew” that “Israel” has to “Israelite.”
E. Whatever Jacob Rothschild and Bill Maher say is historically true.